Matthew as a Mistranslator? No

"We know from other mistranslations that the author of Matthew wasn't all that great with translating Hebrew, for example not knowing the difference between Almah and Betulah"


Just a few comments:

We do not know the language in which the author of Matthew originally rendered his works. Subjective theories and various speculations abound [ancient quotations and writings from Papias through Jerome - e.g., 2nd through 4th century are quite consistent, for example, in their claims that the original text was rendered in Hebrew, and then later translated into other languages, including Aramaic and Greek. Jerome, for example, asserts that during his day, the text in its original Hebrew language was still available in the Library in Caesarea; a then ancient collection assembled by Pamphilus, and a collection which was used by the Nazarenes in Borea]. I suppose anyone's speculation is likely as valid as any other pure speculation. If it is correct to say that Matthew was rendered originally in Hebrew, there would be no accuracy in claiming that the author of Matthew was translating into Hebrew from some other original language. It is interesting to note, however, that in the Greek versions of Matthew there exist numerous Greek words representing transliterated Hebrew words [ hence, רבי , or rabbí, becomes transliterated into Greek as ῥαββί; ריק or the Hebrew reyq, becomes transliterated into Greek ῥακά; and so on]

The author of Matthew seemed to understand the difference between the Hebrew almah and bethula - and he correctly chose to render the then proper Greek term cognate to almah - that being parthenos, which like almah, meant simply a young woman of marriageable age, unmarried, but often betrothed, and - commonly - virgin. Virginity, however, being only one of many characteristics associated with the use of the term parthenos. Not an uncommon characteristic, but certainly not exclusive. The primary meaning of almah is young woman, a maiden, unmarried, but of age to marry - so likewise is parthenos [for example, parthenos is used in various Greek texts of unmarried women who are not virgins. The chorus portions of Aristophanes' work titled "Clouds" being one of many such uses]. The Septuagint itself uses parthenos in Genesis 34:2-4 in describing Dinah following her sexual violation by Shechem. In all reality, neither Hebrew nor Greek had a specific word as we now do to singularly express exclusively the physical condition of a woman specifically lacking penetration by the male reproductive organ. It is not until the medieval period, as best I can recall, wherein such words, including the then period Latin virgo, began to take on this exclusive meaning.