anthrôpos tês anomias

There is nothing wrong with a translation of lawlessness in 2 Thessalonians. It is stating what is originally written -

ανθρωπος της ανομιας

Transliterated - "anthrôpos tês anomias".

anomia = lawlessness [lawlessness, lawless conduct, the negation of law; BDAG 3rd Edition; LSL, Middle Liddell, Strong, et al]

"Don't be fooled by what they say. For that day will not come until there is a great rebellion against God and the man of lawlessness is revealed" - NLT

"Don't let anyone deceive you in any way, for that day will not come until the rebellion occurs and the man of lawlessness is revealed" - NIV

"Let no one deceive you in any way. For that day will not come, unless the rebellion comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed" - ESV

"Let no one in any way deceive you, for {it will not come} unless the apostasy comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed" - NASB

"Let no one deceive you in any way; for that day will not come, unless the rebellion comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed" - RSV


The Douay Rheims, however, reflects an outdated version of 2 Thessalonians 2:3 which relies upon a known manuscript variant in which hamartia is written rather than anomia.

Hamartia = "sin"

Anomia = "lawlessness" - just as SARI has posted.

Are they similar?

John compares the two terms in 1 John 3:4, "Pas ho poiôn tên hamartian kai tên anomian poiei, kai hê hamartia estin hê anomia".

"Everyone who sins also commits lawlessness. Sin is lawlessness"

So whether you believe the manuscript variant hamartia, or the oldest evidence in support of anomian, according to the various texts [John is only one example above] the understanding is the same.